Translation Series - Gita Bhashya - Introduction 1/3

[Subrahmanian, Sundararaman V [IT]]

Thanks for the reference for (2).

Regarding (1) - this sometimes makes me wonder.  Let us say:  I work with a
view to earn money and take care of my family.  I am ambitious to progress
in my career.  At the same time I read giitaa pray to God to relieve myself
from limitations.

What is the above called?  I feel it is partly pravR^itti and partly
nivR^itti.  Do the shaastras call such a person confused?  A little while
ago Sri Vidyasankar said that there is a bridge between the two.  The below
seems to suggest that once I take up nivR^itti marga, I have to give up my
desires or to put it differently - till I give up my desires I am not yet in
nivR^itti marga.  I am trying to keep the context of Sri Jaladhar's posting
on iishaavaasya - something is not clicking within !!

That is saddening because even though I have love for God, I still have
worldly desires.  Does that mean I have not yet taken the path of
spirituality. May be I am asking too many questions too soon.  Perhaps these
would be covered later in giitaa.

Regards,
SVS

PS:  I would rather know the truth about where I am (as per shaastras) even
if it is not flattering.

-----Original Message-----
From: Ravisankar Mayavaram [mailto:miinalochanii at YAHOO.COM]
Sent: Friday, August 02, 2002 10:47 AM
To: ADVAITA-L at LISTS.ADVAITA-VEDANTA.ORG
Subject: Re: Translation Series - Gita Bhashya - Introduction 1/3


For your second question: one reference I can think of is
iishaavaasyopanishhad.

For the first question, they cannot be practised simultaneously. This is
very clearly explained in the bhaashhya of the same upanishhad.
For most poeple, typically it is one (pravRtti maarga) followed by the
other (nivRtti maarga). As it was pointed out there are also cases such as
sanaka etc, it was directly  and only nivRtti maarga.

My 2c.

Ravi

On Fri, 2 Aug 2002 10:10:19 -0400, Subrahmanian, Sundararaman V [IT]
<sundararaman.v.subrahmanian at CITIGROUP.COM> wrote:

>Dear Sri Vidyasankar,
>
>When you say "Law is to be observed" - does it refer to either of the paths
>at any time or both simultaneously or one followed by the other?
>
>What is Sri Sankara refering to when he says that the "Law is described in
>the Vedas" (vedokta)?
>
>Regards,
>SVS
>