[Advaita-l] RE: What does "Hare Krishna" Mean?

[Vidyasankar Sundaresan]

> >Because it can't.  There is no "magic spell" that can give anyone moksha.
> >Bondage is caused by ignorance so only the opposite of ignorance can
> >result in liberation.  It's not a question of whether one recites one 
>name
> >or 100,000, if it is done without jnana it will not avail.
>
>May I know the sastric basis for the above statement?

There are thousands of Sastric statements to the effect that jnAna is 
absolutely necessary for moksha.

> >currents as are North Indian Vaishnava movements of which ISKCON is a
> >modern offshoot.  In many cases what such people mean by Moksha is also
> >markedly different from what Advaitins believe.
....
>The moksha of Vaishnavas is different from that of Adavitins. There are 5 
>kinds of moksha, that I have heard of. But, interestingly, the goal of 
>Krishna conscious devotees is not even moksha which is considered the final 
>goal of life by Hindus. They actually look down upon liberation!!!.
>

Looking down upon liberation clearly marks most of the teachings of the Hare 
Krishna movement as being quite non-traditional and of very modern origin. 
By looking down upon moksha, you are looking down on what has been promised 
by Krishna himself in the Gita (ahaM ... mokshayishyAmi) In any case, it is 
beyond dispute that what we mean by moksha is markedly different from yours. 
So, why argue beyond a point?

Vidyasankar

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