[Advaita-l] Swami Satchidanandendra Saraswati
Ramakrishnan Balasubramanian
rama.balasubramanian at gmail.com
Tue Jul 13 06:59:51 CDT 2004
But I do agree with his analysis of avidyaa/maayaa as used by
"sa.mkara. :-). I have not read the two you mention below, but his
other books along with re-reading passages from "sa.mkaras work was
convincing enough :-).
That said, I diagree with one particular point, which I will post
later. I don''t have the time to post a lengthy mail right now. But I
do agree with his analysis that maayaa and avidyaa are _not_ used
interchangeably.
Rama
On Tue, 13 Jul 2004 01:42:42 -0700 (PDT), venkata subramanian
<venkat_advaita at yahoo.com> wrote:
> Well, Sri Rama i am just putting before you one thing regarding why Swamiji is so clear to say that the equation Avidya = Maya is not what the Acharya says.
>
> See the reasons he has put forth in his "Mula Avidya Nirasa" a work published somewhere in 1929 (his first published Sanskrit Work), now very rarely available in some old libraries. The book is not with me, i cannot quote from it, but i have seen, read it at many places. the entire 3 chapter deserves our attention in this regard.
>
> Further, there is an article from his pen published somewhere in the earlier parts of the 20th century, in his answer to the objections of one Sundararama Iyer from Tanjore, on this Mulavidya issue. His reasonings are quite clear in that also. (hope you have seen this article).
>
> Can we judge something on this issue, after looking all the material in hand.
>
> regards,
> Venkata subramanian
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