[Advaita-l] Re: source of mAyA?

mwadhwa at uwm.edu mwadhwa at uwm.edu
Mon Mar 27 22:13:51 CST 2006


Adityaji,

       although you posed the question from Vidyasankarji but I would add just a
little.
       Just think what happens when the magnet is placed near iron pieces, they
get attracted to the magnet. Is there any intention of the magnet to do so. If
you see Brahman (infinite consciousness) as of this inherent nature then things
would get clear. Just look at your body and the inherent nature of your internal
organs. Is there any among all those who is intending anything to do anything.
Your body organs are functioning, your nervous system, your mind all are
working, call that the sway of modes of nature or whatever you like...similarly
the mind of brahman as you are saying is just pure consciousness in which there
is no intention of doing anything....Arjun, I have no intention to do anything
still I work......I am not involoved in all these activities...etc. etc....  
There is no causality involved with Brahman aspect...this is the reason one
starts going back to the source of dissolution and reach the point of
Shoonya...or infinity...both are infact the same....
       If you can understand that part through experiencing, you would be able
to understand all that IS.....This paradox of contradictions is sewn through
and through this understanding....from action to non-action...and causality to
non-causality....

Pranaams,
Manish






Quoting Aditya Varun Chadha <adichad at gmail.com>:

** Assuming the self-existence of brahman and its "mind", would it be
** safe to say that turiya or jIvanmukti are equivalent to the subsiding
** of a PART of the "mind of brahman"? Is that equivalent to saying that
** "the goal of saguNa brahman is nirguNa brahman"?
**






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