[Advaita-l] to be and to have in Sanskrit

[Jaldhar H. Vyas]

On Fri, 30 Mar 2007, Guy Werlings wrote:

> he priya mitrANi |
>
> I am rather surprised nay disappointed to see that my earlier question as to 
> the verbs to be and to have in Sanskrit did not arise the slightest interest 
> from the many learned members of the list.
>

I was interested but as you may have noticed I have not been very active 
of late.  Anyway as the respondents have said, the lack of "to have" is 
more due its replacement by the case system rather than any 
philosophical reason.  A few vestiges of this survive in English.  For 
instance you can say "I have a body" or "I am embodied."  There is no 
"have" in the second phrase but em- takes its place and the meaning is the 
same.

-- 
Jaldhar H. Vyas <jaldhar at braincells.com>