[Advaita-l] Svarita in RV and YV (was Re: SRI SUKTAM - Meaning)

[Ramakrishnan Balasubramanian]

Vishwam,

What a qualified guru has taught is the correct method. The proof for
the apaurusheyatva of the vedas, be it Rg veda or otherwise, is that
it has been known to be taught by a series of teachers in the same way
(see Kumarilas arguments).  So what svaram was taught by a guru is the
correct svaram. All this comparsion to the Rg veda svarams are quite
meaningless because it is a case of the Rg veda pot calling the yajur
veda kettle black.

Rama

On Thu, Feb 26, 2009 at 4:39 PM, vishwanthan Krishnamoorthy
<krishvishy at yahoo.com> wrote:
>
> right, but what is interesting to know (and I know we dont have any empirical data here) is that if the current vedic recitation practiced largely is not correct (the root for this thread was the common recitation of Sri Suktam being questioned),
> then does it mean that the actions (homam etc) have not been bearing the intended fruits?
>
> regards
> Vishwam
>