[Advaita-l] Apoureshyatva - Faith or Logic?
rajaramvenk at gmail.com
rajaramvenk at gmail.com
Wed Jul 4 00:47:43 CDT 2012
Dear Sri Bhaskar,
I have a lot of respect for Sri Vidyasankar myself and it is unfortunate that it is he is making these points. It is the force of the theory of biological and linguistic evolution. IMO, these theories are like a deaf man describing a movie without the sabda because I know astrology is eerily accurate, acharyas have displayed unnatural powers beyond science etc.
I'm not setting up anything or knocking - have least interest in doing so. He says sabda was with whoever or whatever revealed the mantra to the rishi. That does not help. If people don't know gayatri, they can't chant it in sandhyavandana etc. It is not my argument but (my understanding of) periyava's. Also, sabda is not a vastu. It is a pramana.
Sent from my BlackBerry® wireless device
From: Bhaskar YR <bhaskar.yr at in.abb.com>
Sender: advaita-l-bounces at lists.advaita-vedanta.org
Date: Wed, 4 Jul 2012 09:51:44
To: A discussion group for Advaita Vedanta<advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org>
Reply-To: A discussion group for Advaita Vedanta
<advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org>
Subject: Re: [Advaita-l] Apoureshyatva - Faith or Logic?
BTW, your theory of evolution of dharma leads to many
inconsistencies. Before Gayatri mantra is revealed, people didn't chant
that during sandhyavandanam? Even if you say so, before "ma himsyat sarva
bhutani" or "satyam vada" was revealed, did no one incur the sin due to
violence or lie? How do we know that someone will not give a new vidhi in
the future? Without being revealed full knowledge, how did sanatkumaras
follow nivrtti marga? If it is not through incorrect inference, how do we
know rishis lived at a point in time and the Vedas were non-existent
he first rishi appeared? Brahma, by your logic, must have been quite
ignorant to start with.
praNAms Sri Rajaram prabhuji
It seems you have not understood what Sri Vidya prabhuji saying in his
mail. Hence, you are just imagining something on your own and refuting
it..(erecting a strawman and beating it :-)) Here is what he said in his
// quote //
To say that a Rshi lived in time and that he or she revealed some portion
of the veda to mankind does not imply the prior non-existence of what was
revealed. I've never implied anything of the sort, even remotely.
In fact, as a vedAntin, I don't accept prAg-abhAva.
// unquote //
Here he is clearly saying that he is not implying prior non-existence of
what was revealed and to be precise he is clearly declaring that he is not
accepting the prAg-abhAva!! Despite this, you are assuming that he is of
the opinion that prior non-existence of the unrevealed veda is possible
and refuting that view !!
Hari Hari Hari Bol!!!
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