[Advaita-l] Apoureshyatva - Faith or Logic?

Bhaskar YR bhaskar.yr at in.abb.com
Fri Jun 29 05:33:56 CDT 2012

I fail to see why the prAmANya of Sruti needs to be further validated by
appealing to a logical proof that establishes its apaurusheyatva, 
given the svataH-prAmANya-vAda

Humble sAshtAnga praNAms Sri Vidya prabhuji
Hare krishna

As I said earlier, I am not familiar with pUrva mimAmsaka's vAda with 
regard to aparusheyatva of veda-s and how advaitins would differ from 
their stand.  Could you please suggest me a work which exclusively deals 
with this subject. 

IMHO, those who are questioning the aparusheyatva of veda-s (frankly, I 
too gradually becoming skeptical in this issue, ofcourse against my will 
:-)) do not questioning the validity of veda-s.  Those who are doubting 
the apaurushetatva can still treat veda-s as a valid pramANa along with 
other well known paurusheya smruti and nyAya grantha-s like geeta & 
sUtra-s.  So, the question, whether veda-s are paurusheya or apaurusheya 
and the answer in either way do not come in the way of validity of veda-s. 
 sAdhaka-s, who can still have conviction that veda-s are the valid 
pramANa for the karma/brahma jignAsa irrespective of its paurusheya or 
apaurusheya status.  But I reckon, veda-s & its origin  can be 
investigated without harming the unquestionable  validity of the same. 
Moreover, if I remember correctly, you had said earlier, svataH pramANya 
of veda-s is not a supporting argument to prove veda's apaurusheyatva and 
you also said, before questioning anything on apaurusheyatva of veda-s, 
one must understand what is meant by the word 'apaurusheyatva'.  In my 
layman's understanding 'apaurusheya' means not purusha kruta (not even by 
god/brahman) it is anAdi, ananta without any specific human/divine 
intelliegence behind it, etc. If this understanding is not correct, kindly 
educate me prabhuji what exactly the meaning of the word 'apaurusheya' 
when traditionalists say 'veda-s are apaurusheya. 

And also kindly allow me to ask a fundamental (or stupid) question.  Who 
assigned the status of self-validity (svataH prAmANyaM) to the veda-s !!?? 
 Do veda-s anywhere mention, whatever I say with regard to karma/brahma is 
final & pramANya for that is in itself and assertions/declaration what you 
find in me are not subject to any further query/investigation..Or is this 
svataH prAmANya status has been granted by saMpradAyavida-s who are having 
an undoubted  conviction in the veda's embedded ultimate teachings on 
ateendriya karma phala-s & bhuma vishaya?? Please clarify prabhuji.

Your humble servant
Hari Hari Hari Bol!!!

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