[Advaita-l] On rationality; was "Vedas are not apauresheya according to the Vedas ?"
bhaskar.yr at in.abb.com
Fri Jan 25 03:30:36 CST 2013
sAshtAnga praNAms Sri Vidya prabhuji
In fact, strictly speaking, pUrva mImAMsaka-s reject the need for any
ISvara at all.
> then how the statements like asya mahatO bhUtasya niHshvasitametat
yadrugvedO yajurvedaH sAmavedOtharvAgirasaH etc. in bruhadAraNyaka would
be interpreted by pUrvamImAmsaka-s??
A similar process of criticism and rejection can be applied to
apaurusheyatva also, *IF*
this were to be established using anumAna. For any great logician on
there will be an even greater logician who will find holes in his
arguments and reject
them, for one reason or the other.
> then which pramANa would be used by pUrva mImAmsaka-s to prove
apaurusheyatva of veda-s?? is it Agama pramANa itself or anupalabdhi
pramANa prabhuji?? What exactly is the difference between pUrva & uttara
mImAmsaka-s with regard to pramANa they used to establish apaurusheyatva
of veda, pls. clarify.
Your Humble servant
Hari Hari Hari Bol!!!
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