[Advaita-l] Body is the disease

V Subrahmanian v.subrahmanian at gmail.com
Tue Jan 21 12:02:01 CST 2014


Namaste

Pl. read what Srinath Vedagarbha writes in this post.  I spoke to Sri Mani
Dravida SastriNaH on this and he immediately said: the very opening topic
in the khandanakhandakhAdyam is this and he has concluded that 'there is no
need for such a condition' (that srinath is talking about).

I saw your write up:

http://eng.lalitaalaalitah.com/2012/11/khandana-khanda-khadya-with-sharada.html

If possible, could you kindly elucidate that topic for the benefit of all
of us?

BTW, did you get the copy of dvA suparNa from bangalore?  Pl. let me know.

With pranams
subrahmanian.v


On Tue, Jan 21, 2014 at 5:36 PM, Srinath Vedagarbha
<svedagarbha at gmail.com>wrote:

> Dear Sri.Bhaskara-ji,
> Namaste.
>
>
> On Tue, Jan 21, 2014 at 5:32 AM, Bhaskar YR <bhaskar.yr at in.abb.com> wrote:
>
> > anAditva is in siddhAnta, no doubt, but at the same time it is also in
> the
> > siddhAnta that notion of anditva is valid only from  vyavahAra
> > perspective.
> >
> > praNAms Sri Srinath Vedagarbha prabhuji
> > Hare Krishna
> >
> > I failed to see where exactly Sri Ananda Hudli prabhuji said that nAnA
> > jeeva and their respective avidyA-s are pAramArthically anAdi??  Ofcourse
> > sarva loukika, vaidika vyavahAra, shAstra & even bandha-mOksha everything
> > within the realm of vyavahAra only.  The explanation that has been given
> > with regard to jeeva-avidyA and anAditva too falls under vyavahAra only.
> > What exactly is the problem here??  could you please elaborate.
>
>
>
> In a vAda, when one provides a tarka/anumAna to substantiate his/her stand,
> it is expected in vidvad circles that hEtu used  in such argument is indeed
> accepted as "true" (tAtvIka), at least in such person's own siddhAnta if
> not in opponent's siddhAnta.
>
> So in this line, when anAditva was used, I was just pointing to the fact
> that it is not tAtvIka as it implies on the face of it, for such notion of
> anAditva comes with a baggage, for it is conceived when one in vyavahAra,
> which by definition avidyA drusTi. So, basically it boils down to the fact
> that one cannot argue based on elements which are not "true" in reality.
>
>
>
> >  I think
> > problem starts only when one say even before the jeeva bhAva/srushti or
> > even before the srushti, paramAtma who is ekamevAdviteeya had avidyA !!
> > Because this attribution of avidyA to brahman even before anything would
> > imply that pAramArthically brahman would have the avidyA.  No need to
> > mention mUlAvidyA of panchapAdika vivaraNa entertains this type of
> > thought.
> >
> >
> Some posts in this list are indeed explicit in saying Brahman is ashraya
> for avidya.
>
> Leaving them aside, in the current context of jIvAshraya (of avidya) vAda
> of Sri.vAchaspati, no doubt this argument is anchored and forwarded in the
> context of vyavahAra only.  But the contention from the opponent is that
> such notion of "vyavahAra" and "jIva" is impossible unless alleged avidya
> is in action. So, the question of locus for such avidya is the topic of
> discussion. Madhusudhana was arguing in support for jIvAshrita vAda, and
> upon showing the in-applicability of his argument, anAditva was forwared,
> which I was contesting on the grounds that it is not tAtvIka, for it comes
> into equation only when vyavahAra is admitted, but possibility of vyavahAra
> is the very first question we are debating.
>
> I hope I am clear on this issue.
>
> /SV
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