[Advaita-l] Question about Avaccheda vada
Aditya Kumar
kumaraditya22 at yahoo.com
Tue Feb 13 02:13:25 EST 2018
Namaste,
Actually it is dvaitAdvaita.
It is a commentary on Nimbarkas dashashloki
by a goswami of that school.
A: Thanks for clarifying. In any case, it is the understanding of the purvapakshis, not to be found anywhere in the original bhashyas.
Even if that's true (it's not) this is
not evidence. The author is
describing
the advaitic view not his own. And historically the North
Indian Vaishnava movements all came way
after Advaitic doctrines were
already
settled.
A: One small instance is that some Advaitins have written commentary on a post 10th century Vaishnava work - Srimad Bhagvatam. Another instance is that Advaitins like SSS have started a debate over the settledness of Advaitic doctrine. As far as settledness is concerned, it is only between the teachers and their respective students. There is ample evidence that many Advaitic teachers improvised on Shankaras works and sometimes even flatly disagreed. When this is seen as a virtue, there is bound to be divergence from the original.
No. Read the
very next line after the one you quoted.
A: The keyword in the next line is 'nityasattvastho'. Does this mean sattva guna or to always remain in Sat? Especially because he says nirdvandvo before. Now I am not very good at Sanskrit, actually a noob:-P but how can nityasattvastho be broken to mean sattva?
--
Jaldhar H. Vyas <jaldhar at braincells.com>
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