[Advaita-l] Partlessness of Brahman and Maya

[Sudhanshu Shekhar]

V Subramanian ji,

//I can't understand this: //being nirguNa and yet it can have vyaya
swabhAvatah //

Only Atman/Brahman can be nirguna and there is no way there is vyaya
svabhavatah. Not also from an external force there can be vyaya to Atman.

Apart from Atman/Brahman there is no entity that can be nirguna. //

That is why I did not really take that into consideration. Mentioned it
just because Anandagiri Tika does so. निरवयवत्वादेव सावयवद्वारकस्य
निर्गुणत्वाद्गुणद्वारकस्य च व्ययस्याभावेऽपि स्वभावतो व्ययः
स्यादित्याशङ्क्याह -- परमात्मेति (Gita 13.32).

This line does contemplate a possibility that there is avyayatva owing to
being niravayava and also owing to being nirguNa *AND YET* there is vyaya
by swabhAva. I don't see any possibility of anything being such. BhAshya
also talks of niravayava and nirguNa only.

//Akasha during every pralaya and the other two at the dawn of
knowledge/videha kaivalya.  This is a case of  swarUpeNa apakshaya (vyaya,
naasha). // But being niravayava, there ought not be swarupeNa nAsha of
AkAshA by the vyapti of Gita 13.32/2.20. That is the question.

Sudhanshu.