[Advaita-l] Partlessness of Brahman and Maya
sudhanshu.iitk at gmail.com
Mon Jun 17 08:03:16 EDT 2019
V Subramanian ji,
//I can't understand this: //being nirguNa and yet it can have vyaya
Only Atman/Brahman can be nirguna and there is no way there is vyaya
svabhavatah. Not also from an external force there can be vyaya to Atman.
Apart from Atman/Brahman there is no entity that can be nirguna. //
That is why I did not really take that into consideration. Mentioned it
just because Anandagiri Tika does so. निरवयवत्वादेव सावयवद्वारकस्य
निर्गुणत्वाद्गुणद्वारकस्य च व्ययस्याभावेऽपि स्वभावतो व्ययः
स्यादित्याशङ्क्याह -- परमात्मेति (Gita 13.32).
This line does contemplate a possibility that there is avyayatva owing to
being niravayava and also owing to being nirguNa *AND YET* there is vyaya
by swabhAva. I don't see any possibility of anything being such. BhAshya
also talks of niravayava and nirguNa only.
//Akasha during every pralaya and the other two at the dawn of
knowledge/videha kaivalya. This is a case of swarUpeNa apakshaya (vyaya,
naasha). // But being niravayava, there ought not be swarupeNa nAsha of
AkAshA by the vyapti of Gita 13.32/2.20. That is the question.
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