[Advaita-l] Relationship between Brahman and avidyA
kamesh_ccmb at yahoo.co.in
Sun Jun 23 10:57:37 EDT 2019
" inquiry for relationship between Brahman and avidyA is meaningless?".
Dear Sir, I should say No, Any enquiry has a meaning in knowing its truth. The relation is something like a axiom in mathematics, i.e if you take an hypothesis and reach its end, if you are successful then you can conclude well, otherwise you can merely say it is hypothetical doesn't rely on practicability.
Avidya surpasses real nature and reveals some other thing than the original.It is more related to maya/illusion. Self can be known through avidya. The Universal self i.e Brahman can be known if you overcome maya.
Brahmman & Avidya can be differentiated by experiencing the Truth in which subject/object keeps changing depending on the situation. We all are slaves in samsara through avidya. If the single entity coverts into unity which is real results in non-duality i.e Advaita. There are some of my basic views.
Learned may contradict or contribute their views.
Sri Guru Padaravindarpana Mastu
On Sunday, 23 June 2019 7:05:21 pm IST, Sudhanshu Shekhar via Advaita-l <advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org> wrote:
What exactly is the relationship between Brahman and avidyA? Brahman is
changeless, activity-less. It cannot be the upAdAna or nimitta in the
primary sense. This is so because kArantva implies change and Brahman being
changeless, there cannot be kAranatva for Brahman.
So, it results that avidyA alone is upadAna and nimitta and the kAranatva
stated for Brahman in Upanishads is adhyAropita. There just cannot be any
However, it leaves us with two distinct entities. Brahman and avidyA. What
is the relationship between them? If one says that two entities, Brahman
and avidyA, will violate advaita then it is answered that avidyA is mithyA
and it is avastu and non-existent and hence advaita is not violated. Should
that mean that the inquiry for relationship between Brahman and avidyA is
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