[Advaita-l] vedAnta mahAvAkya - A query

[Praveen R. Bhat]

Apologies, forgot to translate the quoted text. Added herewith...

True. Bhagavan Bhashyakara says this under Mundaka mantra 1.1.5
> differentiating parA and aparA vidyA:
> (pUrvapakShI) ननु ऋग्वेदादिबाह्या तर्हि सा कथं परा विद्या स्यात्
> मोक्षसाधनं च । ‘या वेदबाह्याः स्मृतयो याश्च काश्च कुदृष्टयः. . . ’ (मनु.
> १२ । ९५) इति हि स्मरन्ति । कुदृष्टित्वान्निष्फलत्वादनादेया स्यात् ;
> उपनिषदां च ऋग्वेदादिबाह्यत्वं स्यात् । ऋग्वेदादित्वे तु पृथक्करणमनर्थकम् अथ
> परेति ।
>
=If outside Rigveda, etc, how can that (knowledge) be higher knowledge and
means to freedom? Because the Smriits say whatever statements are outside
the Vedas are wrong views. Since it is a wrong view, being purposeless, it
would be unacceptable. And the Upanishads would fall outside the Rigveda,
etc.
OTOH, if they are part of the Vedas, then the division as to being superior
would be futile.

> (siddhAntI) न, वेद्यविषयविज्ञानस्य विवक्षितत्वात् ।
> उपनिषद्वेद्याक्षरविषयं हि विज्ञानमिह परा विद्येति प्राधान्येन विवक्षितम् ,
> नोपनिषच्छब्दराशिः । वेदशब्देन तु सर्वत्र शब्दराशिर्विवक्षितः ।
>
=Not so, the knowledge regarding the subject (fit) to be known being
intended; because, here, the knowledge regarding that imperishable revealed
through the Upanishad is primarily intended as superior knowledge, not the
collection of words (of the Vedas), whereas generally, the collection of
words is intended by the word Veda.