[Advaita-l] Re: gauDapAda kArikA-s

[kalyan chakravarthy]

>However, think about the following. The jIva, being brahman, is also a kind 
>of sa-guNa brahman (the guNa-s differ), and according to your own thinking, 
>the jIva is deluded.

This type of thinking is rejected in the brahmasUtras. I have already given 
you the relevant brahmasUtras to show this. It was also stated that 
commonsense is inapplicable to brahman. The scripture is the source of right 
knowledge.

Note that you wont say that jIva is brahman in the other three states. jIva 
brahma unity is valid only in liberation. bheda sruti  prevails for the 
other states.

>Well, asampradAyavit sarva-SAstravid api mUrkhavad upekShaNIyaH - 
>gItAbhAshya.
>
>How do you arrive at the true meaning of vedAnta independent of all else?

Vedanta is very specific that brahman is undeluded. For interpreting vedanta 
correctly, we have the brahmasUtras and we have already seen what they say.

>If so, I don't understand why you have to have a problem with gauDapAda 
>kArikA-s.

The problem is this - *sammohitah svayam*

>Who decided that gauDapAda (or for that matter, Sankara or sureSvara) gives 
>un-vedAntic posulates? It seems to me that this is completely a 
>misunderstanding of what he says.

In what way is this a mis-understanding? I have asked this many times. Where 
in vedanta do you get the idea that brahman is deluded? If it is accepted 
that vedanta states very clearly that brahman is undeluded, then any 
postulate on the contrary is automatically unvedantic. If you maintain that 
brahman is deluded, then what is the guarentee that the BG is not avidya?

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