[Advaita-l] Is God "unscientific"?

[S Jayanarayanan]

--- "Jaldhar H. Vyas" <jaldhar at braincells.com> wrote:

[..]

> > 2. the point about prayers is also suspect. Prayers of any
> kind, apart
> > from those that describe a deity, are clearly are not
> translatable to a
> > propositional form. this being the case , how can this
> function as a
> > substitute for the justification?
> 
> The Mimamsaka response would be that the mantras are indeed
> meaningless. 
> (or rather whatever linguistic meaning they have is not
> relevant to the 
> practice of Dharma.) 

I'm not sure of the exact context of the question (what does
"translate to a propositional form" mean?) or the reply, but the
mImAmsA view is that Mantras have intrinsic meaning. This has
been discussed before on the list:

http://lists.advaita-vedanta.org/archives/advaita-l/2005-February/014953.html

http://lists.advaita-vedanta.org/archives/advaita-l/2005-March/014988.html

But the fact remains that there exist mantras that do not seem
to have any meaning. The mImAmsaka here argues that even though
the mantra does have an intrinsic meaning, it so happens that we
are not aware of the meaning of the mantras.

-Kartik

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