[Advaita-l] GYAnimAtra and the sthitapraGYa (was Re: FW: Avidya, Jnanis and SSS' views)

[S Jayanarayanan]

--- On Wed, 5/19/10, V Subrahmanian <v.subrahmanian at gmail.com> wrote:

> On Tue, May 18, 2010 at 9:03 PM, S
> Jayanarayanan <sjayana at yahoo.com>
> wrote:
> 
> > -
> >
> >
> > However, I still disagree that this particular
> akR^itopAsti has already
> > attained mokSha in the strict sense of the word! I've
> already provided
> > several reasons, here are a few of the important
> reasons again, none of
> > which you have answered so far:
> >
> > 1) There are several verses in the JMV that
> categorically deny mokSha to
> > one who has not yet undergone vAsanAkShaya, as for
> instance:
> >
> >   tatra vAsanAkshayaprakAram Aha
> vasishhThaH -
> >   bandho hi vAsanAbandho mokShaH syAd
> vAsanAkshayaH .
> >   vAsanAstvaM parityajya mokShArthitvam
> api tyaja .. [LYV 18.20]
> >
> >   "About the destruction of vAsanAs,
> VasishhTha said thus -
> >   'Bondage is truly the bonds of
> vAsanAs and mokSha is getting rid
> >   of them. Giving up all vAsanAs, give
> up even the desire for mokSha.'"
> >
> > It is clear from the above that mokSha =
> vAsanAkShaya.
> >
> 
> The above equation is clearly not the one held by the
> ShAstra. 

It is a recurring theme in the JMV that vAsanAkShaya is an extremely important requirement for mokSha, with the above quote being only one among dozens attesting to the fact that one who has not undergone vAsanAkShaya has not yet attained to mokSha. If your reading of the JMV implies otherwise, I strongly disagree, having already given manifold reasons in my previous posts (including the above quote)!

I split this thread into two so that we can at least have agreement on one point, but it seems it has sprung multiple heads like Hydra :-)

I'm really tired of this thread, and hence will lay it to rest here (hopefully these words will be true!).

[..]

Regards,
Kartik