[Advaita-l] On rationality; was "Vedas are not apauresheya according to the Vedas ?"

Sunil Bhattacharjya sunil_bhattacharjya at yahoo.com
Wed Jan 23 00:17:38 CST 2013

Pranam Bhaskarji,
Kindly refer to Lord Krishna's statement (15.15b) in the Bhagavad Gita. He differentiated that and so did Sayana too. Vedas are Apara vidya and the Upanishads are Para vidya. You are surely aware of the terms Purva-mimansa and Uttara-mimansa. That may also help you. Bhagavad Gita, as Upanishad, teaches us Para-vidya, though it also talks about Apara-vidya.

Sunil KB

 From: Bhaskar YR <bhaskar.yr at in.abb.com>
To: Sunil Bhattacharjya <sunil_bhattacharjya at yahoo.com>; A discussion group for Advaita Vedanta <advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org> 
Sent: Tuesday, January 22, 2013 8:51 PM
Subject: Re: [Advaita-l] On rationality; was "Vedas are not apauresheya according to the Vedas ?"

From the Vedic angle one has to accept the apaurusheyatva
only as a hypothesis and this hypothesis cannot be challenged.  However
from the Vedantic angle the situation is different.  

praNAms Sri Sunil prabhuji 
Hare Krishna 

Kindly pardon me, I am not able to get
it properly !!  It seems to me you are differentiating veda-s from
vedAnta, but traditionally vedAnta (upanishads) forms the part of veda-s
only and it is not a separate set of texts, hence it is called vedAnta.
 Could you please elaborate the difference between veda and vedAnta
here while taking the stance on apaurusheyatva of these texts.   

Hari Hari Hari Bol!! 

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