[Advaita-l] On rationality; was "Vedas are not apauresheya according to the Vedas ?"

Bhaskar YR bhaskar.yr at in.abb.com
Wed Jan 23 00:32:21 CST 2013

Kindly refer to Lord Krishna's statement (15.15b) in the Bhagavad Gita. He 
differentiated that and so did Sayana too. Vedas are Apara vidya and the 
Upanishads are Para vidya. You are surely aware of the terms Purva-mimansa 
and Uttara-mimansa. That may also help you. Bhagavad Gita, as Upanishad, 
teaches us Para-vidya, though it also talks about Apara-vidya.

praNAms Sri Sunil prabhuji
Hare Krishna

Yes, I am aware of the karma kAnda & jnAna kAnda divisions in veda-s, but 
this division has been done for our own understanding of the tattva behind 
the veda-s.  But IMO, it does not mean these (veda and vedAnta) are two 
different set of texts altogether since veda-s include saMhita, brAhmaNa, 
AraNyka & upanishads.  So, when it comes to aparusheyatva issue, we have 
to treat this veda as a whole without categorizing the veda & vedAnta 
differently. Hence, with regard to 'apaurusheyatva' whatever stance 
applicable to veda-s should equally be applicable to vedAnta-s also 
without any deviation.  But I think you seem to be saying here that 
'aparusheyatva' status should be treated differently in veda & vadAnta. 

Hari Hari Hari Bol!!!

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