[Advaita-l] On rationality; was "Vedas are not apauresheya according to the Vedas ?"

[Sunil Bhattacharjya]

Namaste Bhaskarji,

In fact the Puranas also are Veda as that is 
the fifth Veda and before Vedavyasa divided the Vedas all were known as 
one Veda, the Yajur Veda. So your following contention is not valid. 
Originally all four Vedas and the puranas were one Veda. 
You said 

Quote
But IMO, it does
not mean these (veda and vedAnta) are two different set of texts altogether
since veda-s include saMhita, brAhmaNa, AraNyka & upanishads.  So,
when it comes to aparusheyatva issue, we have to treat this veda as a whole
without categorizing the veda & vedAnta differently.
Unquote


Let us be honest and not compromise for the sake of convenience in 
interpreting the term "Apaurusheya". The Veda has 33 devas and Vishnu is the Parampada but do you have anyone else than the Brahman in Vedanta? 
Vedic teaching is for the four purusharthas and Moksha there does not 
necessarily mean going out the cycle of birth and death. But the true 
Vedantic teaching, as derived from the Mahavakyas, is achieving the 
oneness with the Brahman.

Finally everyone of the  spiritual aspirants will  have to leave the texts of 
Veda, Vedanta, the Sanakarabhashyas etc. behind and only one's understanding would help one to realize the oneness with the Brahman.


Regards,Sunil KB



________________________________
 From: Bhaskar YR <bhaskar.yr at in.abb.com>
To: Sunil Bhattacharjya <sunil_bhattacharjya at yahoo.com> 
Cc: Adiscussiongroupfor Advaita Vedanta <advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org> 
Sent: Tuesday, January 22, 2013 10:32 PM
Subject: Re: [Advaita-l] On rationality; was "Vedas are not apauresheya according to the Vedas ?"
 

Kindly refer to Lord Krishna's statement (15.15b)
in the Bhagavad Gita. He differentiated that and so did Sayana too. Vedas
are Apara vidya and the Upanishads are Para vidya. You are surely aware
of the terms Purva-mimansa and Uttara-mimansa.That may also help you.Bhagavad Gita, as Upanishad, teaches us
Para-vidya, though it also talks about Apara-vidya. 

praNAms Sri Sunil prabhuji 
Hare Krishna 

Yes, I am aware of the karma kAnda &
jnAna kAnda divisions in veda-s, but this division has been done for our
own understanding of the tattva behind the veda-s.  But IMO, it does
not mean these (veda and vedAnta) are two different set of texts altogether
since veda-s include saMhita, brAhmaNa, AraNyka & upanishads.  So,
when it comes to aparusheyatva issue, we have to treat this veda as a whole
without categorizing the veda & vedAnta differently. Hence, with regard
to 'apaurusheyatva' whatever stance applicable to veda-s should equally
be applicable to vedAnta-s also without any deviation.  But I think
you seem to be saying here that 'aparusheyatva' status should be treated
differently in veda & vadAnta.   

Hari Hari Hari Bol!!! 
bhaskar