[Advaita-l] On rationality; was "Vedas are not apauresheya according to the Vedas ?"

[Bhaskar YR]

praNAms
Hare Krishna

I look at the issue this way:  If it is 'mere' logic then there is no 
doubt
about the danger of its being unsettled by stronger logic.  But the case 
we
have is tarka that is shruti anugRhIta.  Such a tarka that has been coming
down to us has not been uprooted or unsettled. 

>  Again prabhuji you are missing the point here.  Shankara calls for 
shrutyanugraheeta tarka for the brahma jignAsa during the mananaM process. 
 He is not saying you can use shruti accepted logic to prove shruti's 
apaurusheyatva status itself.  Here I would like to reiterate that in this 
context, the question we have is on shruti & its apaurusheyatva itself, so 
we cannot take 'shruti'as primary source and continue the tarka with 
shruti anugraheeta statements to prove sruti's status as apaurusheya or 
otherwise.  If we resort to this type of tarka, then it is as good as 
arguing the case in favour of accused based on ONLY his 'anugraheeta' 
statements  :-)) I hope you would agree that it is not tenable. 

Hari Hari Hari Bol!!!
bhaskar