[Advaita-l] Why was the illusory universe generated at the first place?

[Aurobind Padiyath]

There is no absence of light in reality. Only the limitation of your eyes
to see is called the absence. Mistaking the light of Sun under conditions
is in reality the wateryness. Same way when you see things as names and
forms not as Sat Chit Ananda that includes you too, that is called Avidya
or Maya. Not perceived in it's reality creates the names and forms.
Can you experience any thing if it is not existing (Sat), Awareness (Chit)
and niratishaya anubhuti (Ananda)? Everything is only experienced as
knowledge and only if it is existing. That experiencing if it is confused
with the names and forms it is called Jagat otherwise in it's reality it is
only Brahman.
Aurobind

On Wed, 23 Mar 2016 12:36 Shashwata Shastri, <shashwata.unimas at gmail.com>
wrote:

> My question still remains- why the absence of light? And why the mirage in
> first place? As desert and sun is the source of the mirage same way Brahman
> is the source of the illusion. I think I should ask this - Why should I
> experience the absence of light in the first place?!
>
> Shashwata Chowdhury
>
> On Wed, Mar 23, 2016 at 7:42 AM, Aurobind Padiyath <
> aurobind.padiyath at gmail.com> wrote:
>
>> Your statement
>> "It (darkness) can be experienced hence it is sat and at the same time
>> these particular experiences can be nullified (in the presence of light),
>> therefore, it is asat.
>>
>> Brahman is cit (consciousness) Maya is Avidya or (Avastu).
>> Object(appearance) is very different from the subject but there is no
>> object without the subject (This assumption is wrong as in a mirage). But
>> where did this object (the water in a mirage or darkness in the absence of
>> light) came from? "
>>
>> Aurobind
>>
>> On Wed, 23 Mar 2016 12:03 Shashwata Shastri, <shashwata.unimas at gmail.com>
>> wrote:
>>
>>> Where did this Vastu came from? If it is Vastu what is it doing inside
>>> of Brahman? Surely it is not an independent entity?! Questions related to
>>> Maya always puzzles me. I know without Brahman it is non existent. Maya is
>>> mithya and mithya is by default sat and asat. It can be experienced hence
>>> it is sat and at the same time these particular experiences can be
>>> nullified, therefore, it is asat.
>>>
>>> Brahman is cit (consciousness) Maya is Avidya or vastu. Object is very
>>> different from the subject but there is no object without the subject. But
>>> where did this object came from?
>>>
>>> Shashwata Chowdhury
>>>
>>> On Wed, Mar 23, 2016 at 1:53 AM, Aurobind Padiyath <
>>> aurobind.padiyath at gmail.com> wrote:
>>>
>>>> Pranams
>>>> The first error that needs correction is that Maya is a vastu. The rest
>>>> of the questions will be nonexistent if you understand this.
>>>> It is compared to darkness to light as an example.
>>>> Now look at your questions in this scenario. You will get all answers.
>>>>
>>>> Aurobind
>>>> On 23 Mar 2016 03:48, "Shashwata Shastri via Advaita-l" <
>>>> advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org> wrote:
>>>>
>>>>> What is this Maya? Where does it come from? Why was Avidya there at the
>>>>> first place? Brahman is the one and absolute. My question is, why this
>>>>> spark of imperfection in the perfect? Without Brahman there can be no
>>>>> existence of Maya itself. But what is the relation between Maya and
>>>>> Brahman? It is not like the Brahman, it is not even same as Brahman, it
>>>>> can not exist without Brahman, it is not something which can be
>>>>> identified
>>>>> as the opposite of Brahman either. But we need to admit that it did
>>>>> generate from Brahman. If it is from Brahman then why it was there on
>>>>> the
>>>>> first place (Again same question)? Why depended existence of ignorance
>>>>> in
>>>>> absolute and pure Brahman?
>>>>>
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>>> --
>>
>> Aurobind Padiyath
>> +91-9689755499
>>
>
> --

Aurobind Padiyath
+91-9689755499