[Advaita-l] Vaadiraaja Teertha's Yuktimallika - Advaita Criticism - Slokas 1-10 to 1-13

Praveen R. Bhat bhatpraveen at gmail.com
Wed Jun 21 14:17:35 EDT 2017

And let's say you did manage to somehow replace vedA with veda, how do you
then make the anvaya out of yatra veda avedAH and make any sense
whatsoever? How does the sentence finally read for dvaitins?

On 21 Jun 2017 11:31 pm, "Praveen R. Bhat" <bhatpraveen at gmail.com> wrote:

> Namaste Srinathji,
> On 21 Jun 2017 2:06 am, "Srinath Vedagarbha via Advaita-l" <
> advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org> wrote:
> >
> >
> >
> > In shruti vAkya 'atra vEdA avEdAH' , Dvaitins do not consider the term
> vEda
> > as a text, but rather as a verb. Why so? There is a background behind
> this
> > interpretation.
> >
> >
> By no stretch of imagination can a noun be replaced by a verb whose
> letters are different resorting to vyutpattiH of the word given by the
> quoted Shruti or vyAkaraNa!
> Pray tell by which vyAkaraNasUtra did Dvaitins change the word vedAH to
> veda? There are no sandhi rules to help you out here like making tattvamasi
> atattvamasi. There are the following flaws in this--
> --masculine noun vedAH in plural cannot be a verb veda.
> --even considering an impossible form vedA there, it would be feminine
> singular with completely unrelated meaning (as being related to a river!
> Else it cannot be formed out of the masculine gha~n or ach pratyayaH
> yielding vedaH in singular and vedAH in plural). And then you will still
> have to explain how you arrived at hrasvaH akAraH of veda from dIrghaH
> AkAraH of vedA.
> gurupAdukAbhyAm,
> --Praveen

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