[Advaita-l] 'iti' in the vAcArambhaNa shruti

H S Chandramouli hschandramouli at gmail.com
Thu Feb 15 11:25:00 EST 2018


Namste.

I have no doubt about my understanding. Since you have given a specific
reference, I will have a look and revert back.

Regards

On Thu, Feb 15, 2018 at 8:30 PM, Venkatraghavan S <agnimile at gmail.com>
wrote:

> Namaste,
> None taken. In my view, absolutely so. vikAro nAmadheyam, kAraNam ityeva
> satyam corresponds to the second definition of mithyAtva.
> Regards,
> Venkatraghavan
>
>
> On 15 Feb 2018 14:49, "H S Chandramouli" <hschandramouli at gmail.com> wrote:
>
> Namaste.
>>
>>
>>
>> Reg  << I am unable to understand why 6-4 is more difficult to establish
>> mithyAtva, or how this is more akin to milk-curds analogy. The use of 'iti'
>> to say that the effect is real only as the cause is true in both places in
>> my opinion.>>,
>>
>>
>>
>> I absolutely agree with the second sentence. But at this stage I need a
>> clarification before I answer the other question. Is it your contention
>> that this represents mithyatva? No offence meant. Just a straightforward
>> doubt. In my view, it does not.
>>
>>
>>
>>  Regards
>>
>>
>
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