[Advaita-l] Shankara's opinion about Sannyasa for a Kshatriya

[Bhaskar YR]

praNAms Sri Sudhanshu Shekhar prabhuji
Hare Krishna

Now let's say P1 attains moksha while P2 does not. The factum of attainment of Moksha by P1 does nothing to B1. It exists as before. However, the viparita-pratyaya occurring earlier in B1 are now replaced by samyak-pratyaya. B2 as before keeps on having viparita-pratyaya and never gets samyak-pratyaya.

Now, the simple question is -- whether B1 will ever get raga-dvesha-etc viparita-pratyaya in the post-Moksha period. Let us leave all nirupadhika, "in the eyes of ajnani", uapdhi-parichchinna-rupa etc. These are technical terms and they often do not convey the intention. Simple question is -- whether B1 will have raga-dvesha-etc viparita-pratyaya in the post-Moksha period.


Ø     A short and clear answer without any technical terms, is : YES due to avidyA lesha since bhAshyakAra himself admits continuation of vAng manaH kAya even after samyak jnana, jnAni is also subject to rAga-dveshAdi vipareeta prtyaya.  The example given here is ‘digbhrAnta’.  So say some.  With regard to P1’s relationship with B1 bhAshyakAra says : api cha mithyAjnAnapuraHsarOyamAtmanaH budhypAdi saMbandhaH, na cha mithyAjnAnasya samyaKjnAnAdanyatra nivruttirasteetyataH yAvad brahmAtmatAnavabhOdhastAvadayaM buddyupAdhi saMbandhaH na shyAmati.  sUtra bhAshya in the second chapter.

Anyway, I am afraid to discuss these things once again as all traditional guns already started firing at me 😊

Hari Hari Hari Bol!!!
bhaskar