[Advaita-l] Partlessness of Brahman and Maya
sudhanshu.iitk at gmail.com
Sun Jun 16 03:06:57 EDT 2019
Sorry I am not getting your answer correctly. How do you think the
anAditva=>niravayatva=>avyayatva logic applies in the case of avidyA.
On Sun 16 Jun, 2019, 12:29 Praveen R. Bhat, <bhatpraveen at gmail.com> wrote:
> Namaste Sudhanshuji,
> On Sun, Jun 16, 2019 at 11:44 AM Sudhanshu Shekhar <
> sudhanshu.iitk at gmail.com> wrote:
>> You mean a niravayava stuff can be perishable?
> No. I don't think the bhAShya hetu reads the same way as it does for you.
> Shankaranandi takes one meaning as न विद्यते आदिमविकारः जनिलक्षणो भावधर्मो
> यस्य सोनादिः। निरवयवत्वात् अजः। अजो नित्यः इति श्रुतेः। So the hetu works
> better the other way round. Thats why Bhagavan Bhashyakara says निरवयव इति
> कृत्वा। So the question should be whether Maya can be taken as निरवयवा।
>> There are several bhAshya statements to the contrary.
>> (My objection is that you say niravaya is not sufficient as per bhAshya)
> I didn't say that at all! I said that one hetu in the shloka is not
> sufficient. That is anAdi before nirguNa. brahman is both, while Maya is
> the former but not the latter. In any case, the type of anAdi that Maya is
> isn't the same as that brahman is.
> Kind rgds,
> --Praveen R. Bhat
> /* येनेदं सर्वं विजानाति, तं केन विजानीयात्। Through what should one know
> That owing to which all this is known! [Br.Up. 4.5.15] */
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