[Advaita-l] Partlessness of Brahman and Maya

Praveen R. Bhat bhatpraveen at gmail.com
Sun Jun 16 03:22:49 EDT 2019

On Sun, Jun 16, 2019 at 12:37 PM Sudhanshu Shekhar <sudhanshu.iitk at gmail.com>

> Sorry I am not getting your answer correctly. How do you think the
> anAditva=>niravayatva=>avyayatva logic applies in the case of avidyA.

I am saying  anAditva=>niravayatva=>avyayatva is really niravayatva=>
anAditva=>avyayatva (partless --> based on context,
birthless/causeless-->changeless) as from Shankaranandi. As for avidyA, I
think it is same as Maya, being upAdAnakAraNa, there is vyaya.

This is also clear in the case of AkAsha, which is आदिमत्, which cannot be
so, if the above sequence of hetus you read is right since it is also

Kind rgds,
--Praveen R. Bhat
/* येनेदं सर्वं विजानाति, तं केन विजानीयात्। Through what should one know
That owing to which all this is known! [Br.Up. 4.5.15] */


More information about the Advaita-l mailing list