[Advaita-l] Partlessness of Brahman and Maya

[Praveen R. Bhat]

On Sun, Jun 16, 2019 at 12:37 PM Sudhanshu Shekhar <sudhanshu.iitk at gmail.com>
wrote:

> Sorry I am not getting your answer correctly. How do you think the
> anAditva=>niravayatva=>avyayatva logic applies in the case of avidyA.
>

I am saying  anAditva=>niravayatva=>avyayatva is really niravayatva=>
anAditva=>avyayatva (partless --> based on context,
birthless/causeless-->changeless) as from Shankaranandi. As for avidyA, I
think it is same as Maya, being upAdAnakAraNa, there is vyaya.

This is also clear in the case of AkAsha, which is आदिमत्, which cannot be
so, if the above sequence of hetus you read is right since it is also
niravaya.

Kind rgds,
--Praveen R. Bhat
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>