[Advaita-l] Partlessness of Brahman and Maya

[Sudhanshu Shekhar]

Praveenji,

निरवयवत्वादेव सावयवद्वारकस्य निर्गुणत्वाद्गुणद्वारकस्य च व्ययस्याभावेऽपि
स्वभावतो व्ययः स्यादित्याशङ्क्याह -- परमात्मेति.

If you see the Anandagiri Tika, it is clear that the sequence is
anAditva=>niravayavatva=>avyayatva. Isn't it? So the avyatva is through
niravayavatva and not through "अजो नित्य:" Shruti. There is no occasion to
bring niravayavatva if it precedes anAditva because the shloka itself uses
anAditva. One can directly use Shruti अजो नित्य: from Shloka.

In any case, Ananadagiri Tika clearly says निरवयवत्वादेव सावयवद्वारकस्य
....... व्ययस्याभावेऽपि.

Sudhanshu.

On Sun 16 Jun, 2019, 12:52 Praveen R. Bhat, <bhatpraveen at gmail.com> wrote:

>
> On Sun, Jun 16, 2019 at 12:37 PM Sudhanshu Shekhar <
> sudhanshu.iitk at gmail.com> wrote:
>
>> Sorry I am not getting your answer correctly. How do you think the
>> anAditva=>niravayatva=>avyayatva logic applies in the case of avidyA.
>>
>
> I am saying  anAditva=>niravayatva=>avyayatva is really niravayatva=>
> anAditva=>avyayatva (partless --> based on context,
> birthless/causeless-->changeless) as from Shankaranandi. As for avidyA, I
> think it is same as Maya, being upAdAnakAraNa, there is vyaya.
>
> This is also clear in the case of AkAsha, which is आदिमत्, which cannot be
> so, if the above sequence of hetus you read is right since it is also
> niravaya.
>
> Kind rgds,
> --Praveen R. Bhat
> /* येनेदं सर्वं विजानाति, तं केन विजानीयात्। Through what should one know
> That owing to which all this is known! [Br.Up. 4.5.15] */
>
>>